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derrrrr.... Anonymous 12/10/26(Fri)17:10 No. 14288 ID: 6f1470
14288

File 135126422592.jpg - (50.53KB , 500x753 , funny-awesome-animals-16.jpg )

'nother laymen question for you eggheads.

a plankth length is supposed to be the smallest possible measurement. I've heard scientists say that there just isnt anything smaller. how can that be? why is, say, half a plankth not a valid measure?


>>
Anonymous 12/10/26(Fri)17:11 No. 14289 ID: 6f1470

whups. plank length. PLANK. damn spell check.


>>
Anonymous 12/10/26(Fri)17:35 No. 14290 ID: e6e0fd

As far as I know they say "it just doesn't make sense". I don't know why they say so.


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Anonymous 12/10/26(Fri)19:35 No. 14296 ID: 7d7258

planck length. god damn. and it's not the smallest length. it's the smallest observable length below which it's impossible to tell if 2 things are separate


>>
Anonymous 12/10/27(Sat)08:04 No. 14304 ID: c1bebf

It's pretty much the size of one pixel in the resolution of the universe.


>>
Anonymous 12/10/28(Sun)01:41 No. 14312 ID: 2f8741

>>14304
pretty much this.


>>
Anonymous 12/10/29(Mon)00:27 No. 14317 ID: 6f1470

>>14296

okay, is this length an intrinsic part of the universe, and there really isnt anything smaller then it. or is it just a limit of our current technology?


>>
Anonymous 12/10/29(Mon)01:38 No. 14321 ID: 299146
14321

File 135147112586.gif - (16.17KB , 223x300 , Plank_300.gif )

>>14304
But what if you take a higher quality photo and up the display resolution. What stops Future-Tech. increasing the resolution?


>>
Anonymous 12/10/29(Mon)04:07 No. 14322 ID: c1bebf

>>14321
The resolution is a function of the structure of spacetime. You can't alter it any more than you can hack the gain on gravity. So you can increase the resolution on your recording devices, but that doesn't change the resolution on reality.

You can take pictures of your computer's monitor with higher and higher resolution cameras, but no matter how good your cameras are, the smallest unit of information you'll get is defined by a pixel on your monitor.


>>
Anonymous 12/10/29(Mon)09:29 No. 14323 ID: 6f1470

>>14322
so its an intrensic property of the universe, as far as we know.

how did we discover this? according to wikipedea a planck is far, far smaller then any current instrument is capable of measuring. so how did we figure out that the planck is the smallest you can get?


>>
Anonymous 12/10/29(Mon)15:57 No. 14324 ID: 7d7258

because quantum mechanics. and math. i don't know the equations, but they're all on wikipedia. just follow the links to all the different constants and what not.


>>
Anonymous 12/10/29(Mon)22:47 No. 14328 ID: c1bebf

>>14323

The same way we predicted the existence of singularities before actually detecting one. The mathematics describing behaviors of the universe we have already observed can be extrapolated from.


>>
Anonymous 12/10/29(Mon)23:30 No. 14330 ID: 803d39

So what happens if energy were to be added to a wavelength that is as short as a planck length?


>>
Anonymous 12/10/30(Tue)03:21 No. 14332 ID: c1bebf

>>14330

Think about what a wave on your screen with the length of a pixel is. It isn't a wave at all. A vibration must be greater than a Planck length to even be said to occur.


>>
Anonymous 12/10/31(Wed)20:08 No. 14334 ID: 6362ce

>>14328
Except the ratio of singularities we failed to find before we actually found one is huge.

The planck length is just a hypothetical. There is nothing that prevents the possibility of a smaller measurable unit except our current understanding of theoretical physics. And that can change at any time.


>>
Anonymous 12/10/31(Wed)23:56 No. 14335 ID: c1bebf

>>14334
>the ratio of singularities we failed to find before we actually found one is huge

How does that have any bearing on them having been predicted and found?

>The planck length is just a hypothetical.

So were singularities. And the Higgs boson, as well as a whole corral of other particles. You seem to be under the impression that theoretical understanding is not, in fact, understanding. Considering modern theoretical physics' track record, that is a silly assumption to have.

There are areas of theoretical physics that are currently in dispute, but the Planck length is not one of them. The Planck length is based on the speed of light in a vacuum, Planck's constant, and the gravitational constant. If the Planck length turns out not to exist, then at least one of these three well-observed, corroborated, and mathematically understood phenomena is somehow acting differently than we have ever observed it to act.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/01(Thu)19:54 No. 14337 ID: 245694

>>14335
>How does that have any bearing on them having been predicted and found?
The mathematics was only 'finalised' after they successfully found one. Give enough monkeys enough calculators and one of them will eventually plug in a universal constant. Working backwards is not the same as working forwards.

>So were singularities. And the Higgs boson, as well as a whole corral of other particles. You seem to be under the impression that theoretical understanding is not, in fact, understanding.
The fabled Higgs-Boson hasn't been discovered. CERN are effectively (and literally) shooting in the dark hoping to find something that fits the model. It by no ways means the models are right. It's like religion and god, just because he fits into the Christian model of the universe doesn't mean he exists.


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Anonymous 12/11/01(Thu)21:01 No. 14338 ID: c1bebf

>>14337
> It by no ways means the models are right

Of course not. But it does mean that the models are A: reliable and B: not yet wrong.

Comparing a testable predictive model to blind faith is the definition of scientific illiteracy. I mean this with all due respect, but perhaps /x/ is a better board for you.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/02(Fri)12:42 No. 14342 ID: 44804b

i was going to post this but the hurricane took out the internet. i'm pretty sure wavelength doesn't matter. wavelength is a description of trajectory, not a measurement of any intrinsic physical property or size. according to de broglie's formula any object with momentum greater than 41 kg m/s has a wavelength lower than planck length


>>
Anonymous 12/11/13(Tue)06:19 No. 14386 ID: e16336

Imagine hypothetically that we could measure plank lengths between objects, would 6.5 lengths be an invalid measurement? Would the object arbitrarily move to 7 lengths?


>>
Anonymous 12/11/13(Tue)06:36 No. 14387 ID: 44804b

can you like actually spell right?

your question is like asking what if the center of the earth wasn't the center of the earth. obviously there would be something lower and the previous center would just be some random meaningless point in the mantle.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/14(Wed)22:25 No. 14397 ID: c1bebf

>>14387

No, he's asking a perfectly valid question. What he wants to know is, "given that the Planck length is the smallest measurable distance, is the universe digital with everything existing in increments of Planck lengths, or does it make spatial sense to have a longer measurement that is not evenly divisible by the Planck length?"

It is a fascinating issue, actually. I'm not quite sure what the current state of research on this is.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/15(Thu)04:31 No. 14400 ID: 44804b

but that's not what he wants to know. that's what you want to know. the immeasurability of the planck length is not a physical consequence, but a statistical one born from the effects of quantum superposition and the uncertainty principle. the answer to your question would be the proposed causes of these effects, which are currently only hypothetical.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/15(Thu)19:06 No. 14404 ID: c1bebf

>>14400
>but that's not what he wants to know.

So he wants to know something other than the thing his question was asking? You must tell me the secrets of your clairvoyance.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/16(Fri)01:54 No. 14406 ID: 6f1470

OP here

actually, i think i wanted both. how is it that a planck can be the smallest unit? is 'half a planck" not a thing? why? i just didnt understand the material enough to ask the right question.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/16(Fri)05:51 No. 14407 ID: c1bebf

>>14406
It's simply got to do with how space, time, matter, and energy behave at extremely small scales in ways that they don't behave at scales you encounter first hand.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/16(Fri)06:00 No. 14410 ID: 44804b

>>14404

lolwut? that's literally what i just said to you. i answered the question he asked. you're the one who projected your own questions on to what he said.

and before you get confused,

ID: 6f1470
ID: e16336


>>
Anonymous 12/11/16(Fri)18:26 No. 14411 ID: c1bebf

>>14410

Protip: if you want people to be aware that your post is not a direct response to the post immediately above yours, linking to the post you are actually responding to is not only advisable, but necessary.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/16(Fri)19:45 No. 14412 ID: 44804b

but i was responding to the posts immediately above. what the hell is going on? i feel like i'm taking crazy pills


>>
Anonymous 12/11/16(Fri)21:24 No. 14413 ID: c1bebf

>>14412

In that case, you're simply illiterate. The question directly above your post was asking specifically what I identified through a practice called "reading comprehension", that you might do well to exercise.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/16(Fri)23:30 No. 14415 ID: 44804b

what. that post was clearly about sig figs. don't get offended just because you got called out for butting in. it's not your duty to speak for others and it's not my duty to look for subtext in a science question. if he thought i interpreted his question inadequately, he can followup himself or better yet, ask the right question in the first place.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/17(Sat)02:03 No. 14416 ID: c1bebf

>>14415
> that post was clearly about sig figs.

This post? >>14386

This post is not asking about significant figures. It is asking whether or not you can have distances that are not even multiples of the Planck length. To say that's what's being asked is not reading into the question, it is just plain reading the question.

>it's not my duty to look for subtext
What subtext? This is the text. You are generally expected to actually read questions you're trying to discuss.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/17(Sat)05:14 No. 14418 ID: 44804b

bro, he asked if additional decimal digits of planck lengths had any real meaning. that's literally the definition of sig fig. it's certainly less of a stretch than whether or not space is quantized, especially since he prefaced this with "if we could measure lower than planck length."

the only significance of the planck length and the only reason why you or anyone thinks that it's the so called "pixel size" of the universe is that it's theoretically the lowest measurable distance. if you negate that, then it has no special significance, which is exactly what i said. you're the one ignoring/not reading parts of the post here.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/17(Sat)07:16 No. 14421 ID: c1bebf

>>14418
>since he prefaced this with "if we could measure lower than planck length."

That would be a valid point if he'd said that anywhere in that post, but he didn't. The question began:

>Imagine hypothetically that we could measure plank(sic) lengths between objects

Which is a different premise entirely. Bro.

I will state again that if you're going to discuss a question, it is generally held to be not too much to ask that you actually read it.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/18(Sun)10:19 No. 14426 ID: 44804b

well that would make his post entirely about sig figs wouldn't it?

and when are you actually going to try to prove your own claim? i don't see him mention space quantization anywhere. there's a big difference (one might even call it a superlative difference) between "too small to measure" and "smallest thing in existence." seems to me you're still the one jumping to conclusions, unless there are some invisible words in his post you can greentext for me

also, there's theoretically no reason why we wouldn't be able to measure planck length. it's what's under planck length that we can't measure. so the only reason he would say "hypothetically" would be if he meant we could measure lower than planck length.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/18(Sun)23:11 No. 14431 ID: c1bebf

>>14426
What proof does face value need? Guy asked, "What if we had a hypothetical ruler that could measure in increments of the Planck length? Could we measure 6.5 units between objects, or would their location snap to 7 units even?"


>>
Anonymous 12/11/18(Sun)23:28 No. 14432 ID: 54ae5c

yea? and how does any of that imply that he was asking about space quantization? and what about my other points? i'd like to add that being able to precisely measure multiples of an increment implies being able to tell whether a measurement is a whole increment or a fraction.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/18(Sun)23:35 No. 14433 ID: c1bebf

>>14432
>how does any of that imply

It doesn't imply. It outright states.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/19(Mon)04:10 No. 14434 ID: 54ae5c

no, it doesn't. nowhere in his post does he say anything about planck lengths being the smallest unit of space.

you're the one who first started responding like a sarcastic faggot and calling people illiterate. well, if you're so much more literate than me, maybe you can give me an explanation instead of a third "no u" answer


>>
Anonymous 12/11/20(Tue)00:09 No. 14438 ID: c1bebf

>>14434
>nowhere in his post does he say anything about planck lengths being the smallest unit of space

Because it goes without saying, considering the operating definition established in the thread.

>illiterate

Not reading and not being able to read have the same net result. It was not a random insult, it was a literal diagnosis.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/20(Tue)04:03 No. 14440 ID: 54ae5c

>>It outright states
>>it goes without saying

okay

>>the operating definition established in the thread

established? are you talking about this pixel metaphor you keep jamming down our throats? did you miss every single one of my posts? i already said it's an observational consequence, not a intrinsic physical one. the image on the monitor isn't the universe itself, but our observation of it.

and i'm still waiting to hear how you think we can measure an exact number of planck lengths without being able to tell the difference between a whole length and a fraction


>>
Anonymous 12/11/20(Tue)04:10 No. 14441 ID: 261182
14441

File 135338105211.png - (27.32KB , 622x575 , copycat.png )

adasdasf


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Anonymous 12/11/20(Tue)05:42 No. 14443 ID: c1bebf

>>14440
>i already said it's an observational consequence, not a intrinsic physical one.

So in other words, a pair of objects that are not an even number of Planck lengths apart will not, in fact, snap to an even number. I'm sure the fellow above will appreciate that you've finally answered his question.

I just find it fascinating that you're arguing so earnestly that somebody who asked if two objects will automatically assume a distance an exact number of Planck lengths or not, was not in fact asking that.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/20(Tue)07:55 No. 14444 ID: 54ae5c

>>I just find it fascinating that you're arguing so earnestly

that's what happens when you take a sarcastic patronizing tone and start insulting people for no reason.

>>somebody who asked if two objects will automatically assume a distance an exact number of Planck lengths or not, was not in fact asking that

nice try, but i said he wasn't asking about the quantization of space. i then proceeded to explain exactly why it wasn't about the quantization of space. then you objected and refused to fully explain yourself for the next 17 posts and made me guess your meaning when in reality i had already addressed your objection before it was even made.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/20(Tue)16:18 No. 14445 ID: c1bebf

>>14444

You're demanding that I "prove" face value. Let's say I insisted that someone talking about a "dozen" of something was referring to an olfactory quality of an object instead of a numerical one. How would you respond to my calls for proof that someone was using the word "dozen" to refer to how many of something there is and not how it smells?


>>
Anonymous 12/11/20(Tue)19:13 No. 14447 ID: c1bebf

But if you really want a breakdown, sure, let's analyze this.

>Imagine hypothetically that we could measure plank lengths between objects,

Just face value here, not twisting the words in any way, he's asking about the distance between objects. It isn't ambiguous. It is what the words mean.

>would 6.5 lengths be an invalid measurement? Would the object arbitrarily move to 7 lengths?

Now, he's asking if there can be 6.5 Planck lengths between objects, or if they would actually literally move to be a distance of 7 lengths apart. Again, this is not ambiguous. It is exactly what he is saying, at face value. He is asking about the quantization of distance between objects.

I'm sorry you misread the question, but the fact is, you misread the question, and getting upset with me will not change the fact that you misread the question.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/20(Tue)19:28 No. 14448 ID: 9fe5bc

>>14386
I believe you've proposed a paradox, my good sir. See, I thought about this myself, and this is what I came up with.

In the hypothetical situation you propose, we would be able to measure a Planck length as easily as we could measure a centimeter or a half inch, correct? Well, if you place a Planck length of 6 next to a length of 7, there would be a difference between the two of magnitude 1. However, if you place a length of 6.5 between them, it should be obvious that it is neither a full 6 or a full 7, but somewhere in between. It is more than a Planck length of 1, and therefore retains its observability.

On the other hand, in this scenario, it shouldn't be measurable because the difference between the proposed length and its comparisons (the full 6 and 7) is one half of the smallest measurable unit. In larger units we would look at it and say "Not quite 6, not quite 7". But this is the smallest unit of measurement, smaller than an a nano-angstrom. Nothing below it can be considered to exist. When you take half of the smallest unit of known measurement, it has to fall between 6 and 7 but it can't because the .5 doesn't exist. But, in your scenario, it does exist, and therefore must show up. It is because of this that I believe a Planck length of 6.5 would display as a Planck length of 6 and 7 at the same time. If it didn't, then the Planck length wouldn't be the smallest unit of measurement.

I may be wrong, so is anyone willing to do sort of a peer review on this?


>>
Anonymous 12/11/20(Tue)19:32 No. 14449 ID: c1bebf

>>14448

A good interpretation, but there's a difference between a thing being the smallest DISTANCE measurable, and being the smallest UNIT.

If it is only the smallest distance measurable and not the smallest unit, then our hypothetical Planck ruler could have subdivisions on any unit after the first.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/21(Wed)00:59 No. 14450 ID: 9fe5bc

>>14449
That makes sense. However, I was under the impression (and still am) that the Planck length is a unit of measurement rather than a distance. Perhaps this is incorrect as well? If so, then I will have to re-evaluate my grasp of this hypothetical scenario.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/21(Wed)02:49 No. 14451 ID: 9fe5bc

>>14450
To clarify, I mean to say that while it makes sense that a distance larger than one unit of the Planck length could be subdivided, it is prudent to consider that this is the smallest unit of measurement. It is, in itself, already the smallest subdivision which can exist.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/21(Wed)03:46 No. 14452 ID: c1bebf

>>14450

If it is an indivisible unit of measurement, we run into some problems, I think. For example, let's say we have a cubic formation of things that measures a Planck length on each edge. It works just fine if you're measuring between two objects on any one edge, but the objects that are diagonal from each other across faces or at opposite corners of the cube are going to be more than one length but less than two.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/21(Wed)08:47 No. 14457 ID: 54ae5c

>>14445
>>14447

it's too late bro, you already said that your face value interpretation was based on "the established definition" drawn from the context of the thread. i have already shown that i was contesting that definition, thereby making said definition not "the established definition." at this point in the argument it no longer matters what the actual definition was. you've pretty much admitted that you're ignoring posts and projecting your own thoughts on to others.

>>14448

yea that's what i was getting at. >>14432

>>14449

i'm going to let this one slide.

>>14452

that's not the only problem. you can also get quantum zeno's arrow, where no motion can occur because you're constantly observing the object.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/21(Wed)16:21 No. 14458 ID: 9fe5bc

>>14452
I suppose that must be why particles of matter are larger than the Planck length, then. Any object as small as the Planck length creates a paradox and all sorts of problems arise. >>14386 proposed a nice thought experiment, but it doesn't hold up to scrutiny because it is inherently a paradox when you divide the smallest subdivision possible. The cube you propose does not exist in real life, so please don't act like it does. It is merely a three dimensional alteration on his original proposition.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/21(Wed)16:39 No. 14459 ID: c1bebf

>>14457
>you already said that your face value interpretation on "the established definition" drawn from the context of the thread

No, the concept of Planck length is based on the established definition of "the smallest measurable distance". The pixel metaphor you object to so much is not "the established definition" I was referring to. Thought it is as scientifically inaccurate as the "orbital shells" model of chemistry, and just as useful for visualizing how things behave at those scales.

The face value interpretation of the question is based on the face value of the question. You could replace any measurement in there for "Planck length" and still have a question that asks about quantization of distance. As "proven" when I quoted the question, and then repeated it pretty much word for word.

What you're arguing has no bearing on what the question is asking, only what the answer to the question is, and I had begun with stating that I didn't know that.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/21(Wed)16:59 No. 14460 ID: c1bebf

>>14458

The specific cube doesn't exist, but it does demonstrate the problem inherent in things that do.

For example, a helium atom. Let's imagine for a moment that the electrons of a helium atom could be said to exist at discrete measurable locations, instead of just probability fields. When their positions measured from the nucleus are at right angles to each other, it would create a similar situation to the side of our hypothetical cube.

Of course, we cannot measure the exact location of an electron in its orbit, but even so, such an effect would produce a "pixelization" in the probability field that describes the location of the electron.

The situation becomes even more complicated when we consider two helium atoms next to each other and try to envision a way in which both nuclei and all four electrons are always a multiple of the Planck length in distance from each other, and prohibitively complicated when we note that each nucleus has four particles, each of which by the hypothetical must always be a multiple of that length from every other particle in the two atoms we're considering.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/21(Wed)19:36 No. 14464 ID: 54ae5c

>>14458
>>14459

and i've already said just because it's the smallest measurable doesn't mean there's nothing smaller. saying it's the indivisible smallest unit of space just because it is the smallest measurable is as lazy and irresponsible as believing in the anthropic principle.


>>
PlutoniumBoss!Y1SVQJ54eA 12/11/22(Thu)01:42 No. 14466 ID: c1bebf

>>14464

Which is an answer to the question in question. Again, thank you.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/22(Thu)01:44 No. 14467 ID: 9fe5bc

>>14460
>>14464
But the reason it's the smallest is because anything below it cannot be differentiated from another point in space. Quantum physics take over and funky shit happens. Because of this lack of differentiation, I continue to believe that our hypothetical .5 would appear to be multiple lengths at once.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/22(Thu)02:52 No. 14468 ID: 54ae5c

>>14466

so you admit i already went over this and you were just ignoring my post when you made your objection


>>
Anonymous 12/11/22(Thu)18:38 No. 14473 ID: c1bebf

>>14468

I admit you already went over this, and I admit that I ignored your interpretation of the question in the same way that you would ignore someone who was arguing that a stop sign means you should accelerate on your way through an intersection.

But despite you arguing that words don't mean things, you still managed to answer the actual question at least twice. Congratulations.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/22(Thu)20:08 No. 14474 ID: 54ae5c

>>14473

no bro, what you ignored wasn't the interpretation of the question, but my refinement of the "established definition." >>14342

how could i have interpreted the question wrong before it was even asked?


>>
PlutoniumBoss!Y1SVQJ54eA 12/11/22(Thu)23:54 No. 14476 ID: c1bebf

>>14474

While not incorrect, how does that change the definition of Planck length from "the smallest measurable distance"?


>>
Anonymous 12/11/23(Fri)00:31 No. 14477 ID: 54ae5c

>>14476

space quantization at planck length means that planck length is the absolute smallest indivisible unit of space bro, not smallest measurable.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/23(Fri)02:22 No. 14478 ID: c1bebf

>>14477

The smallest indivisible unit would necessarily be the smallest measurable, so regardless of whether space is so quantized or not, the definition holds, doesn't it?


>>
Anonymous 12/11/23(Fri)03:26 No. 14480 ID: 54ae5c

if a then b is not equivalent to if b then a. the smallest measurable is not necessarily the absolute smallest. haven't i said this already? and shown posts of me saying this before and during the start of this argument? if the "established definition you were talking about was

>>14476
>>"the smallest measurable distance"

then at best you've got quantization of perception


>>
Anonymous 12/11/23(Fri)05:05 No. 14481 ID: c1bebf

>>14480

You don't necessarily have quantization of anything. Neither case is, in itself, necessary to define Planck length as the smallest measurable distance.

Is this really all because you've assumed I've been trying to push a specific argument in favor of quantization, and reacting against it?


>>
Anonymous 12/11/23(Fri)07:52 No. 14482 ID: 54ae5c

aren't you saying he was asking about space quantization?


>>
Anonymous 12/11/23(Fri)17:54 No. 14483 ID: c1bebf

>>14482

Yes, because that's what he's asking about. However, I didn't venture an answer to the question either way.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/23(Fri)23:10 No. 14484 ID: 54ae5c

how is he asking about space quantization if he's talking about the smallest measurable and not the absolute smallest?


>>
Anonymous 12/11/23(Fri)23:41 No. 14486 ID: 17721c

>>14484
He specifies the question is about distance between objects, and then asks if objects will necessarily measure an indivisible integer of units apart or not. He is asking whether or not the definition implies that space is quantized.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/24(Sat)02:13 No. 14489 ID: 54ae5c

>>14486

he asked the first part of that, but not the second. his question was about measurement, not distance. he never even said the word distance or space


>>
Anonymous 12/11/24(Sat)18:44 No. 14503 ID: a1a664

How can asking about the properties of a measurement between objects not be referring to a distance, and the space between the objects?

If I say "How many miles are between New York and Los Angeles?", I don't need to say the words "space" or "distance" for me to be explictly referring to a distance and a spatial relationship.

And then the part you seem to be misunderstanding most, he asks not just if the measurement will follow to fit an integer of Planck lengths, but asks if the objects will literally physically assume positions in space that are an integer of Planck lengths.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/25(Sun)00:17 No. 14504 ID: 54ae5c

>>How can asking about the properties of a measurement between objects not be referring to a distance

when the question is about accuracy and precision. some parts of a measurement don't actually represent a physical quantity, but rather the error.

>>asks if the objects will literally physically assume positions in space that are an integer of Planck lengths

things can be measured as whole planck lengths apart even if they're not exactly. that's what it means to be the smallest measurable, ie, maximum precision possible. it has no bearing on whether or not the object is actually in that location or whether space is quantized. not to mention, i already said beforehand that space isn't quantized, or more specifically, that there are widely accepted models that describe lengths smaller than planck length.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/25(Sun)03:32 No. 14507 ID: db1fa7

>>14504

> when the question is about accuracy and precision.
But the question is not about accuracy.

> that's what it means to be the smallest measurable, ie, maximum precision possible

Not true. If space is, as you say, not quantized, then any fraction of a Planck length above one will be measurable. Any two points closer to each other than the Planck length cannot be measured as separate points, but any two points farther apart can theoretically be accurately measured with a fine enough instrument.

And that is the whole point of the question, to ask whether or not space is quantized and thus whether or not fractions of Planck above the first literally spatially exist. Thank you for answering it a third time.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/25(Sun)04:07 No. 14509 ID: 54ae5c

>>then any fraction of a Planck length above one will be measurable

no, it wouldn't. sig figs bro, like literally the first day of high school chemistry. precision only depends on the last digit, ie, the smallest interval. if the smallest you can measure is 1 cm it doesn't matter if you're measuring 1 cm or 100 cm. you can't go any lower than the ones place.

>>Thank you for answering it a third time

why do you keep saying i'm answering his question when clearly i'm answering your mistaken notions about basic scientific concepts


>>
Anonymous 12/11/25(Sun)16:47 No. 14510 ID: fecf17

>>14509
> if the smallest you can measure is 1 cm it doesn't matter if you're measuring 1 cm or 100 cm. you can't go any lower than the ones place.

You're confusing "the smallest unit measurable" with "the smallest distance measurable", which are two separate concepts.

The limit formulated by Planck is the smallest distance one can physically measure, no matter how accurate a tool one might have, but any distance greater than that can be measured to the accuracy of the tool.

The concept you are talking about is "the smallest unit measurable", which is a function of the measuring tool, and is what Planck stated could theoretically be increased to more accurate than the Planck length, but still in a given measurement could not measure a smaller distance than the Planck length.

And all of this has zero bearing on the unambiguous and definite meaning of the person's original question, which is a third subject that is a function of words meaning things. However, it does have a bearing on the answer to that specific question.


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Anonymous 12/11/25(Sun)18:51 No. 14511 ID: 54ae5c

>>14510

wow. you don't know how to measure things. wow.

so you're saying you can break the laws of physics by measuring with the middle of the ruler instead of the end? do you even think about what you type? how does the universe know if the fraction of planck length you're trying to measure is alone or tacked on to the end of some larger length?

i can only assume you're going to say something else ridiculous like having a ruler that's 1.5 planck lengths long or intervals that are 1.5 planck lengths, so let me save you some time. how are you going to make such a ruler or verify its accuracy? at some point you're going to have to measure .5 planck lengths.

>>a third subject that is a function of words meaning things

yes, words that have nothing to do with space or distance and therefore space quantization. you've already implicitly agreed to this. >>14507

>when the question is about accuracy and precision.
>>But the question is not about accuracy.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/26(Mon)03:28 No. 14513 ID: c1bebf

>>14511
>how does the universe know if the fraction of planck length you're trying to measure is alone or tacked on to the end of some larger length?

Our fractions are meaningless to the universe. The Planck length is simply the bottom limit of distance we can accurately measure. Anything above that, by Planck's formulation, is fair game if we can build a tool accurate enough.

>yes, words that have nothing to do with space or distance

You are quite adamant about having misread a question about measurement between two objects, which quite explicitly and necessarily refers to a spatial relationship. Let me ask you this. If the question has nothing to do with "space" or "distance", what is being measured in the hypothetical? Time? Temperature, perhaps? Or maybe velocity?

>you've already implicitly agreed to this.
Yes. I agree that the question is not about the accuracy of a measurement, but whether objects will actually physically assume certain spatial positions in relation to each other based on Planck length and affect said measurement. Because it is what the question is asking. Explicitly, literally, word-for-word, et cetera.


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Anonymous 12/11/26(Mon)05:57 No. 14516 ID: 54ae5c

>>14513

accuracy and precision are different concepts. any middle schooler knows this. you should do some reading before you continue.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Accuracy_and_precision
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Significant_figures

>>The Planck length is simply the bottom limit of distance we can accurately measure. Anything above that, by Planck's formulation, is fair game if we can build a tool accurate enough.

that is not what it means at all, as i tried to illustrate to you with the question you just ignored. so i'll ask it again. how can you build an instrument that measures 1.5 planck lengths without measuring .5 planck lengths?

>>If the question has nothing to do with "space" or "distance", what is being measured in the hypothetical

i already said the question is about error and precision. you can tell because you can change planck length for any other unit and it would still be the same question.

>>I agree that the question is not about the accuracy of a measurement

here's a test to see if you learned anything from the reading. can you tell me why that quote has no bearing on the argument?


>>
Anonymous 12/11/27(Tue)00:43 No. 14517 ID: c1bebf

>>14516
>accuracy and precision are different concepts

Neither of which are what said question is asking about.

>how can you build an instrument that measures 1.5 planck lengths without measuring .5 planck lengths

Build an instrument that measures 3 Planck lengths and then make it exactly twice as effective.

>i already said the question is about error and precision
And I already said you were wrong about that.

>any other unit and it would still be the same question.

And that question would be asking if two objects would literally move to an even number of units apart. If we take a mile as the Planck length, the question would be asking if Tucson and Phoenix could be x-and-a-fraction miles apart, or if they would literally move to be x miles apart exactly.

You can tell he's asking if the object would literally move its position, because he asks "would the object move?" That's words meaning things for you.

>can you tell me why that quote has no bearing on the argument

The only thing that has a bearing on the argument of what the question is asking is the text of the question.

He asks about measuring between objects. Then he asks if two objects can be x-plus-a-fraction of Planck apart, or if the objects will actually literally physically move to occupy points an integer of Planck lengths apart.

All these other things were an enjoyable read, but they have zero bearing on the meaning of the question. I find it amusing that you began immediately by accusing me of reading into the question, and yet to support your misinterpretation you are going to great lengths to use every resource on the internet except the text of the actual question at hand. If it were any clearer a case of projecting, we could hire you out to a theater and play films on you.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/27(Tue)01:00 No. 14518 ID: f1dbfb

No, OP.

But what I have wondered, is how can there be no square root of 2. I can build a square with an area of 1. It exists, and has sides at 1". Now with that very same square I built in my left hand, I pick up a ruler with my right hand, count the half-inch marks, and decide my 12" ruler is 24 half inch units.

But obviously there cannot be, because I have a square in my left hand whose root would be two of those units, and since there is no square root of two, one of these things must cease to exist.

But this is not the same as your question.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/27(Tue)01:19 No. 14520 ID: 54ae5c

>>You can tell he's asking if the object would literally move its position, because he asks "would the object move?" That's words meaning things for you.

no, he's asking if the measurement would change. i'm sure you've heard the expression "jump" used to describe fluctuations in instrument readings.

it seems you're under the impression that we live in some sort of ideal world of forms where things are absolute and one correct answer to everything exists, just waiting for us to find it. well, we don't. everything we know is averaged from different measurements and observations, all spanning a range of values.

>>Build an instrument that measures 3 Planck lengths and then make it exactly twice as effective.

and how do you make it twice as effective? here's a thought experiment for you. (although not really much of an experiment) if you want to fold a piece of paper in half, how do you do it? you compare the edges to see if they're even, right? but what happens if one edge is sticking out by a few micrometers more than the other? you obviously can't see that small with the naked eye. it's beyond the precision with which you can see. is it then right to declare that the piece of paper is exactly in half?

>>If we take a mile as the Planck length, the question would be asking if Tucson and Phoenix could be x-and-a-fraction miles apart, or if they would literally move to be x miles apart exactly

nice straw man, but you forgot to include the part where he says a mile is the smallest measurement you can make


>>
Anonymous 12/11/27(Tue)02:29 No. 14521 ID: c1bebf

>>14520
>no, he's asking if the measurement would change. i'm sure you've heard the expression "jump" used to describe fluctuations in instrument readings.

If he was asking if the measurement would change, he would have asked if the measurement would change. Instead, he asks if the object would move, meaning he is asking if the object would move.

>and how do you make it twice as effective?
That's a problem for the engineers.

>is it then right to declare that the piece of paper is exactly in half?
Depends entirely on what you need to use the folded paper for.

>straw man

I don't think that word means what you think it means.

>you forgot to include the part where he says a mile is the smallest measurement you can make

Given:

The fact that he's asking about a given unit,

The fact that he's asking about objects physically moving to assume spatial relationships in indivisible integers of that unit,

And the fact that said unit had recently been described as such in this (at the time) very short thread,

I find it highly likely that you not only didn't read the question, but hadn't read the thread either.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/27(Tue)06:26 No. 14524 ID: 54ae5c

>>If he was asking if the measurement would change, he would have asked if the measurement would change. Instead, he asks if the object would move, meaning he is asking if the object would move.

lol. so you're saying he's asking if an object can accelerate itself for no reason. ok, let's say he was. but how is that evidence for space quantization? if space was quantized the object would already be at either 6 or 7 and wouldn't have to move. that's literally the definition of space quantization. if he was asking about space quantization, why did he do it by asking about something that has nothing to do with space quantization? in fact, his question implies pretty strongly that the objects in this scenario are objectively exactly 6.5 planck lengths apart, which is literally the opposite of quantized space. and the two resulting scenarios he proposed were division of planck length (not quantized space) and apparent movement/variation in measured distance (also not quantized space).

>>That's a problem for the engineers.

engineers can't do the impossible bro

>>Depends entirely on what you need to use the folded paper for.

from how hard you avoided answering i can tell you know you're fucked. well, let me drive the point home then. the folded paper is for measuring. and the size of the paper is 10 x 10 micrometers. this is basically what you're proposing with your "make it twice as effective" idea. yes. you can try to do it, but you'll have no way of verifying exactly how big the end result is. all you'll know is you've folded it somewhere. you also know that since the size of the paper is almost the same as your precision limit, the % error is going to be huge, which means your new measuring device is totally useless.

i'm going to preemptively explain what % error means now. i think you need it. if you're folding printer paper (8.5" x 11"), a mistake of one micron is .000001 m / (5.5 in x .0254 m/in) = .0007% but if you're folding 10 microns, that's a 1 um / 5 um or 20% difference, which is too big even for sociologists.

i feel like this is all going over your head. i mean, i'm pretty sure preschoolers know that measurements can be added and subtracted. if you can precisely measure 1 planck length and 1.5, that means you can measure .5.

>>The Planck length is simply the bottom limit of distance we can accurately measure. Anything above that, by Planck's formulation, is fair game if we can build a tool accurate enough.

this is just so wrong i feel i must point out how wrong it is again. any measurement you take must be an integer multiple of your smallest measurable interval. the same quantum gravity that prevents you from distinguishing between .5 and 1 will prevent you from distinguishing between 1 and 1.5.


>>14518

there is a square root of 2.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/27(Tue)13:00 No. 14527 ID: f98e47

>>14518
Wow, never expected to see this level of stupidity on /sci/
From Google: square root(2) = 1.41421356
>>14517
>Build an instrument that measures 3 Planck lengths and then make it exactly twice as effective.
If this instrument were to exist, it would output 2 or 1, when asked to measure 1.5 Planck lengths.
Understand that a planck length isn't a settled length. It can't be expressed as a fraction of an inch, nobody knows how long a planck is, only that smaller lengths do not make sense. Even 1.5 equals 1 + .5, which contains a length smaller than a planck, and thus will not be recognised.
>inb4 hurr durr 1 equals .5 + .5
.5 + .5 equals an integer. 1 + .5 does not.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/27(Tue)18:42 No. 14528 ID: c1bebf

>>14524
>so you're saying he's asking if an object can accelerate itself for no reason.

That is the language he's using, yes. Awkward, I know, but that's literally what he's asking.

>but how is that evidence for space quantization?

It isn't evidence for or against anything, it's what he's asking about.

> if space was quantized the object would already be at either 6 or 7 and wouldn't have to move.

From the point of view of switching back and forth between scenarios of quantized versus non-quantized, it does "move".

>i can tell you know you're fucked

No, I'm simply not bothering to give any attention to what has no bearing on the meaning of the question, which is what we were originally discussing.

>i feel like this is all going over your head

It very well may be. But that's a completely different discussion from what the question at hand means, and no amount of jumping out of bushes yelling "HA! I'VE GOT YOU NOW!" will change the meaning of the question. They're very pretty circles you're running, yes, but the question is over here.


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Anonymous 12/11/27(Tue)18:50 No. 14530 ID: c1bebf

>>14527
>1.5 equals 1 + .5

You do realize that spacetime doesn't recognize these numbers, right? It doesn't recognize a Planck length as a "one".

>nobody knows how long a planck is

www.google.com/search?q=How+long+is+the+planck+length

>1 planck length = 1.616199 × 10^-35 meters


>>
Anonymous 12/11/28(Wed)00:55 No. 14531 ID: 54ae5c

>>14527
>>If this instrument were to exist, it would output 2 or 1, when asked to measure 1.5 Planck lengths.

this part is right

>>14528
>>It isn't evidence for or against anything, it's what he's asking about.

i meant evidence that he's asking about space quantization, since, you know, that's the topic of discussion. please split more hairs instead of actually saying anything substantial.

>>From the point of view of switching back and forth between scenarios of quantized versus non-quantized, it does "move".

first of all, as i've already said, both result scenarios involve premises that directly contradict the very definition of space quantization.

second, the motion comes from switching back and forth? what? since when does the act of talking about two alternatives constitute a third? either he's talking about fraction planck length fluctuation in one scenario (in which case it's not space quantization) or he's comparing only the measurements from the two scenarios (in which case see above about smallest measurement not necessarily being smallest space). by the way, i hope i don't have to remind you how hard you argued that it wasn't the latter case. i notice you used quotation marks around the word move, when just a few posts ago you were proclaiming far and wide about how literal the word move in that question was

>>a completely different discussion from what the question at hand means

yes, thanks for noticing it's two discussions now. one about your dubious claim of him asking about space quantization. and the other about your flat out wrong claim that you can measure fractions of planck length by tacking them on to the end of a longer length.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/28(Wed)04:29 No. 14534 ID: c1bebf

>both result scenarios involve premises that directly contradict the very definition of space quantization.

No, if space is not quantized, premise one, then the distance between two objects can be any distance apart, and we would measure most of those distances as fractional. If objects can only ever physically occupy an integer of units apart, which is premise two, that is the very definition of spatial quantization.

>comparing only the measurements from the two scenarios

So close there, you've almost grasped it, he's comparing two spatial scenarios and referring to the different measurements that would result as a way of differentiating between them. By asking 'would we see X measurement or would we see Y measurement', he is asking which scenario describes the actual behavior of space.

>thanks for noticing it's two discussions now

I've known this since the beginning. One discussion I've been paying attention to because it is what we're actually discussing, the other I've only barely been paying attention to because it is irrelevant to the interpretation of the question.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/28(Wed)13:12 No. 14537 ID: 54ae5c

>>If objects can only ever physically occupy an integer of units apart, which is premise two, that is the very definition of spatial quantization.

he never said this. he asked if the particle would move or appear to fluctuate in position, which is literally the opposite of space quantization. WORDS AND MEANINGS LOLOLOO

>>By asking would we see X measurement or would we see Y measurement

you mean comparing the measurements like i said

>>the other I've only barely been paying attention to

that isn't an excuse for being wrong


>>
Anonymous 12/11/28(Wed)16:16 No. 14538 ID: 359e8c

>>14537

>he asked if the particle would move or appear to fluctuate in position,which is literally the opposite of space quantization

Not at all. The behavior he describes is called a "quantum leap", and would be characteristic of a quantized spacetime.

>you mean comparing the measurements like i said

No, I mean using the measurements as identifiers to compare two different possible structural arrangements of space.

> that isn't an excuse for being wrong

And yet you are insisting on being wrong by not reading the question. You have fascinating double standards.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/28(Wed)20:48 No. 14541 ID: 54ae5c

>>Not at all. The behavior he describes is called a "quantum leap", and would be characteristic of a quantized spacetime.

first, "the behavior he describes" (i still don't see how the act of comparing two scenarios counts as an actual third scenario with "behaviors") is not an energy level change or "quantum leap." he is clearly talking about a change from 6.5 to 7 planck lengths. see above about words, meanings, &c.

second, you might want to actually read about what you're talking about instead of just name dropping and hoping for the best. energy level changes only occur when electrons absorb or emit photons while in an atomic or molecular orbit. disregarding the fact that energy level distances are on the scale of tens of picometers, which is 10^24 times bigger than planck length, i still don't see any mention of electrons, photons, or energy. in fact the guy says arbitrarily, which means with no outside influence. oh, and let me add "in this case." you know, just so you don't feel compelled to go NO YOU'RE STUPID THE DEFINITION OF ARBITRARY IS BLAH BLAH BLAH

third, energy levels are a waveform property. if you're going to measure the location of a particle you're going to collapse the waveform, ie, no energy levels.

>>No, I mean using the measurements as identifiers to compare two different possible structural arrangements of space.

this distinction doesn't change my original point. if measurements are your identifiers your comparison of the scenarios is still dependent on measurements and the properties thereof.

>>And yet you are insisting on being wrong by not reading the question. You have fascinating double standards.

you're counting chickens, but all you've got are supermarket eggs.

also, i defend my claims. your excuse is literally "brain fart."


>>
Anonymous 12/11/28(Wed)21:53 No. 14543 ID: c1bebf

>>14541
>he is clearly talking about a change from 6.5 to 7 planck(sic) lengths.

Yes, a change between scenarios. The first scenario is a non-quantized distance of 6.5 Planck. The second scenario is a quantized distance of 7.

In a quantized spacetime, every single motion of any particle would exhibit the behavior of a quantum leap, not from one orbital level of an atom to the next, but from one quantized coordinate to the next. This is the type of motion he describes.

>your comparison of the scenarios is still dependent on measurements and the properties thereof.

As much as calling one scenario "Bob" and the other "Larry" would be dependent on names and the properties thereof if the question had begun, 'let's assume distances have names' instead of 'let's assume we can measure distances exactly', yes.

>i(sic) defend my claims

No, you switch discussions. Else the second superfluous discussion would never have begun in the first place.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/29(Thu)08:33 No. 14548 ID: 54ae5c

>>Yes, a change between scenarios. The first scenario is a non-quantized distance of 6.5 Planck. The second scenario is a quantized distance of 7.
>>This is the type of motion he describes.

what motion? i thought he was comparing two different scenarios? can you stop flip flopping and choose one?

>>In a quantized spacetime, every single motion of any particle would exhibit the behavior of a quantum leap, not from one orbital level of an atom to the next, but from one quantized coordinate to the next.

that's not how quantum leaps work. i told you to read up on orbitals. i already told you energy levels are a wave property, not a particle property. orbitals are where the probability waves are exactly in phase and interact constructively. the spaces between orbitals are where probability waves are out of phase and interfere destructively. when you change orbitals you change the wavelength of the wave by adding or removing energy. but you're not actually changing the location of anything. the wave is already everywhere. all you've changed is the interference pattern.

but none of this has any bearing on the actual location of any particles or objects because once you measure the location (which is what he's asking about) the waves lose coherence and collapse, ie, no more interference. and let me remind you that probability waves never reach 0 or 1 anywhere until they collapse.

also, i'm going to repeat these since you ignored them last time.

1. energy levels are only in electrons and only when they are confined, ie, their waveforms are cyclical standing waves, which only occur in atoms or molecules

2. like i explained above, the only way to transition between energy levels is to add or remove energy. none of these things are mentioned in the guy's question.

>>As much as calling one scenario "Bob" and the other "Larry" would be dependent on names and the properties thereof if the question had begun, 'let's assume distances have names' instead of 'let's assume we can measure distances exactly', yes.

i'm sure you think this is a good attempt at reductio ad absurdum, but it's not. the absurd part is the part furnished entirely by you, which is the proposal to assign names to distances. given that, there's nothing wrong with the rest. if you want to do it right you're going to have to start with the actual claim. otherwise it's just a straw man.

>>No, you switch discussions. Else the second superfluous discussion would never have begun in the first place.

no, switching would mean i dropped the original. but i didn't. i just added another topic. and what's wrong with that? that's the point of this board.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/29(Thu)17:49 No. 14551 ID: c1bebf

>>14548
>what motion?

Apparent motion.

>a wave property, not a particle property

And particles never behave like waves at the scales we're talking about?

>since you ignored them last time

And will continue to.

>the proposal to assign names to distances

The proposal is to assign identifiers to scenarios characterized by distances.

"6.5" is not a measurement, it is an example by which to characterize one spatial relationship. Likewise "7" is not a measurement, it is an example to characterize the opposite spatial relationship.

>i(sic) dropped the original
Of course you wouldn't have dropped the original, you're just carrying it along to pay lip service to it.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/29(Thu)20:23 No. 14552 ID: 54ae5c

>>Apparent motion.

nice vague response. let me clarify. if that means you're choosing apparent motion within one scenario, then you're wrong because he's talking about moving from 6.5 to 7 planck lengths. if you're talking about apparent motion from comparing two scenarios, then you're insane because that doesn't actually exist. it's just a semantic artifact. it doesn't describe any real motion.

>>And particles never behave like waves at the scales we're talking about?

not when you measure them exactly, as i've said. good job ignoring that.

>>since you ignored them last time
>>And will continue to.

LOL. but i suppose i'd find it hard to admit i was wrong too if i was a faggot and immediately lashed back with sarcasm and insults upon being challenged. maybe you've learned something? just because you're on the internet doesn't mean it's about penis size.

>>The proposal is to assign identifiers to scenarios characterized by distances.

that's still something you've proposed. my claim is that if you're going to use those identifiers to compare, then the comparison is subject to the properties and limitations of the identifiers, just like if your comparison was based on the actual characteristics of each scenario.

>>"6.5" is not a measurement, it is an example by which to characterize one spatial relationship. Likewise "7" is not a measurement, it is an example to characterize the opposite spatial relationship.

a hypothetical measurement is real in a hypothetical situation bro.

>>Of course you wouldn't have dropped the original, you're just carrying it along to pay lip service to it.

and yet the stuff you say in response to my "lip service" just make less and less sense. i guess that means i win?


>>
Anonymous 12/11/29(Thu)21:26 No. 14553 ID: c1bebf

>>14552
>it doesn't describe any real motion

No. It describes apparent motion.

> good job ignoring that.

Thank you.

>but i(sic) suppose i'd(sic) find it hard to admit i(sic) was wrong too

Which is why you're finding it hard to admit you were wrong.

>that's still something you've proposed.

No, it is what the question proposes.

>i(sic) guess that means i(sic) win?

Would that make you happy? Really?


>>
Nameless Book-Reading Youkai !denX47.muQ 12/11/30(Fri)04:52 No. 14556 ID: 17b50f

So, consider the Lorentz-FitzGerald contraction phenomenon: because of special relativity, lengths are foreshortened for an observer that is moving at an approaching velocity. (The effect manifests itself significantly at speeds that are a substantial fraction of light speed).

So then what happens to the observed Planck length? Many who are highly supportive of the status of the Planck length would quickly patch up that hole by awarding it the distinction of "Lorentz invariant".

And I don't really know how to react to that.


>>
Anonymous 12/11/30(Fri)08:04 No. 14557 ID: 54ae5c

>>14553
>>No. It describes apparent motion.

yes. apparent motion isn't always real motion. and it's definitely not real motion when it's the result of switching between two mutually exclusive and distinct scenarios. so how can he be describing a type of real motion? the only way would be if you're trying to say an object moves out of one hypothetical scenario and into another hypothetical scenario, which is ridiculous.

>>Which is why you're finding it hard to admit you were wrong.

i knew you were going to say that. but i have no problem admitting when i'm wrong. i thought he was asking about measuring smaller than planck length. i admitted i was wrong about that. i'll admit i was wrong about space quantization too if you convince me. but what have you been doing? ignoring points, changing your meaning, and derp brain fart.

>>No, it is what the question proposes.

no, the question proposes we use identifiers related to the characteristics you're comparing, not any identifier you want. we agreed that length measurements had an intrinsic relation to distances didn't we? or did you flip flop on that too? you're the one who proposed we use names instead, which have no such relation to distances. that's why it's absurd. but if you'd like to add that in your scenario names are proportional to distances or something like that, then yes, your scenario would be accurate.

also, as i recall, your original claim was that only being able to measure the object at whole numbers implies there is nothing smaller and space is quantized at that interval. i suppose i have a habit of trying to explain things axiomatically when i could have just easily finished it off by asking you how you think you can distinguish whether he's talking about a quantized universe or a non quantized one where you can't measure smaller than planck length, especially with your established definition of planck length.

>>Would that make you happy? Really?

yes.


>>14556

isn't it derived from 3 other invariant constants


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