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Anonymous 17/05/05(Fri)06:24 No. 16495 ID: 97b52b
16495

File 149395827559.jpg - (71.66KB , 289x317 , Ungus Fungus.jpg )

Why does the frequency of a wave multiplied by its wavelength equal C?


>>
Speed of wave propogation Anonymous 17/05/10(Wed)01:53 No. 16497 ID: e4666f

Your equation is true of electromagnetic waves. Other waves (say, waves in water) have a different (and lower) traveling speed. But the frequency times the wavelength is the speed at which the pattern moves. WHY electromagnetic waves travel at the speed of light is not knowable--they just are observed to do so.


>>
Anonymous 17/05/11(Thu)07:25 No. 16498 ID: 58ed95

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wave%E2%80%93particle_duality

there is no spoon


>>
Anonymous 17/05/14(Sun)23:18 No. 16502 ID: 9e6a0a

Because the wavelength is c divided by the frequency.


>>
Anonymous 17/05/24(Wed)14:41 No. 16506 ID: ca3ad7

Same reason the speed of a car driving in a sine wave will be its frequency multiplied by its amplitude.

You're basically just asking "why does EM radiation move at the speed of light". To which the answer is: "it just does".


>>
Anonymous 17/05/25(Thu)05:01 No. 16507 ID: 5465dc

You're multiplying a rate (/s) by a distance (m) so you get a speed, m/s.


>>
Anonymous 17/07/12(Wed)09:08 No. 16524 ID: 3b41a8

Infinity in a Reimann universe is equivelant to -1/2 +- sqrt(1/12)



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